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« DingoTel | Main | Om on IAX vs. SIP »

September 18, 2004


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This is my understanding based on what is stated in is the following: Suppose I get a virtual number in location A, that company is acting like a CLEC. So it gets access charges for all incoming calls (note that all calls incoming calls). If the call is terminated to a VoIP end-point via public internet, then the termination is free. If it is terminating in PSTN, the organiser seem to imply that the termination charge is same as the access charge received at location A. I am sure there are restriction as to where the virtual numbers are available and to which PSTN locations the call could be terminated.

If this understanding is correct then if the access charge regime changes to "bill and keep", then the business plan behind virtual number falls apart.


OK, help a newbie like me out here with this business model theory of ''you can OFFER a VIRTUAL NUMBER''' and receive money OFF of the ''terminating'''end also?????????
Sounds like the ""Level3 Biz MODEL""' that nobody has figured out as of yet........well, except ME!


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